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ECO402 final term solve paper January 2012 Virtual university of Pakistan

Published January 21, 2012 | By Vuhelp

1. When the demand curve is downward sloping, marginal revenue is

  1. equal to price.
  2. equal to average revenue.
  3. less than price.
  4. more than price.

 

2.  For the monopolist shown below, the profit maximizing level of output is:

  1. a.         Q1.
  2. Q2.
  3. Q3.
  4. Q4.
  5. Q5.

 

3.  How much profit will the monopolist whose cost and demand curves are shown below earn at output Q1?

  1. 0CDQ1.
  2. 0BEQ1.
  3. 0AFQ1.
  4. ACDF.
  5. e.         BCDE.

 

4. Which of the following is NOT true regarding monopoly?

  1. Monopoly is the sole producer in the market.
  2. Monopoly price is determined from the demand curve.
  3. c.         Monopolist can charge as high a price as it likes.
  4. Monopoly demand curve is downward sloping.

 

5.  Which of the following is true at the output level where P=MC?

  1. The monopolist is maximizing profit.
  2. The monopolist is not maximizing profit and should increase output.
  3. c.         The monopolist is not maximizing profit and should decrease output.
  4. The monopolist is earning a positive profit.

 

6.  Compared to the equilibrium price and quantity sold in a competitive market, a monopolist will charge a ______________ price and sell a ______________ quantity.

  1. higher; larger
  2. lower; larger
  3. c.         higher; smaller
  4. lower; smaller
  5. none of these

 

7.  Assume that a profit maximizing monopolist is producing a quantity such that marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost.  We can conclude that the

  1. firm is maximizing profit.
  2. b.         firm’s output is smaller than the profit maximizing quantity.
  3. firm’s output is larger than the profit maximizing quantity.
  4. firm’s output does not maximize profit, but we cannot conclude whether the output is too large or too small.

 

8.  To find the profit maximizing level of output, a firm finds the output level where

  1. price equals marginal cost.
  2. marginal revenue and average total cost.
  3. price equals marginal revenue.
  4. all of the above.
  5. e.         none of the above.

 

9.  As the manager of a firm you calculate the marginal revenue is $152 and marginal cost is $200.  You should

  1. expand output.
  2. do nothing without information about your fixed costs.
  3. c.         reduce output until marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
  4. expand output until marginal revenue equals zero.
  5. reduce output beyond the level where marginal revenue equals zero.

 

10.  Suppose that a firm can produce its output at either of two plants.  If profits are maximized, which of the following statements is true?

  1. The marginal cost at the first plant must equal marginal revenue.
  2. The marginal cost at the second plant must equal marginal revenue.
  3. The marginal cost at the two plants must be equal.
  4. d.         all of the above.
  5. none of the above.

 

11.  The monopolist has no supply curve because

  1. a.         the quantity supplied at any particular price depends on the monopolist’s demand curve.
  2. the monopolist’s marginal cost curve changes considerably over time.
  3. the relationship between price and quantity depends on both marginal cost and average cost.
  4. there is a single seller in the market.
  5. although there is only a single seller at the current price, it is impossible to know how many sellers would be in the market at higher prices.

 

12.  When a per unit tax is imposed on the sale of a product of a monopolist, the resulting price increase will

  1. always be less than the tax.
  2. always be more than the tax.
  3. always be less than if a similar tax were imposed on firms in a competitive market.
  4. d.         not always be less than the tax.

 

13.  The monopoly supply curve is the

  1. same as the competitive market supply curve.
  2. portion of marginal costs curve where marginal costs exceed the minimum value of average variable costs.
  3. result of market power and production costs.
  4. d.         none of the above.

 

14.  For a monopolist, changes in demand will lead to changes in

  1. price with no change in output.
  2. output with no change in price.
  3. c.         both price and quantity.
  4. any of the above can be true.

 

15.  Use the following two statements to answer this question:

I.    For a monopolist, at every output level, average revenue is equal to price.

II.   For a monopolist, at every output level, marginal revenue is equal to price.

  1. Both I and II are true.
  2. b.         I is true, and II is false.
  3. I is false, and II is true.
  4. Both I and II are false.
  5. Statements I and II could either be true or false depending upon demand.

 

16.  Which of the following is NOT true for monopoly?

  1. The profit maximizing output is the one at which marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal.
  2. Average revenue equals price.
  3. The profit maximizing output is the one at which the difference between total revenue and total cost is largest.
  4. The monopolist’s demand curve is the same as the market demand curve.
  5. e.         At the profit maximizing output, price equals marginal cost.

 

17.  If a monopolist sets her output such that marginal revenue, marginal cost and average total cost are equal, economic profit must be:

  1. negative.
  2. b.         positive.
  3. zero.
  4. indeterminate from the given information.

 

18.  A monopolist has equated marginal revenue to zero.  The firm has:

  1. maximized profit.
  2. b.         maximized revenue.
  3. minimized cost.
  4. minimized profit.

 

19.  A monopolist has determined that at the current level of output the price elasticity of
demand is -0.15.  Which of the following statements is true?

  1. a.         The firm should cut output.
  2. This is typical for a monopolist; output should not be altered.
  3. The firm should increase output.
  4. None of the above is necessarily correct.

 

20.  A monopolist has set her level of output to maximize profit.  The firm’s marginal revenue is $20, and the price elasticity of demand is -2.0.  The firm’s profit maximizing price is approximately:

  1.  $0
  2. $20
  3. c.         $40
  4. $10
  5. This problem cannot be answered without knowing the marginal cost.

 

 

Barbara is a producer in a monopoly industry.  Her demand curve, total revenue curve, marginal revenue curve and total cost curve are given as follows:

 

21.  Refer to Scenario 1.  How much output will Barbara produce?

  1. 0
  2. 22
  3. 56
  4. 72    
  5. none of the above

 

22.  Refer to Scenario 1.  The price of her product will be _____.

  1. 4
  2. b.         22    
  3. 32
  4. 42
  5. 72

 

23.  Refer to Scenario 1.  How much profit will she make?

  1. -996
  2. 0
  3. c.         1,296
  4. 1,568
  5. none of the above

 

 

 

A monopolist faces the following demand curve, marginal revenue curve, total cost curve and marginal cost curve for its product:

Q = 200 – 2P

MR = 100 – Q

TC = 5Q

MC = 5

 

24. Refer to Scenario 2.  What level of output maximizes total revenue?

  1. 0
  2. 90
  3. 95
  4. d.         100
  5. none of the above

 

25.  Refer to Scenario 2.  What is the profit maximizing level of output?

  1. 0
  2. 90
  3. c.         95
  4. 100
  5. none of the above

 

26.  Refer to Scenario 2.  What is the profit maximizing price?

  1. $95.00.
  2. $5.00.
  3. c.         $52.50.
  4. $10.00.

 

27.  Refer to Scenario 2.  How much profit does the monopolist earn?

  1. a.         $4512.50.
  2. $4987.50.
  3. $475.00.
  4. $5.00.

 

28.  Refer to Scenario 2.  Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government.  What is the profit maximizing level of output?

  1. 0
  2. b.         90
  3. 95
  4. 100
  5. none of the above

 

29.  Refer to Scenario 2.  Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government.  What is the profit maximizing price?

  1. $90.00.
  2. $10.00.
  3. c.         $55.00.
  4. $52.50.

 

30.  Refer to Scenario 2.  Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government.  How much profit does the monopolist earn?

  1. a.         $4050.
  2. $4950.
  3. $450.
  4. $5.

 

31.  Refer to Scenario 2.  Suppose that in addition to the tax, a business license is required to stay in business.  The license costs $1000.  What happens to profit?

  1. It increases by $1000.
  2. b.         It decreases by $1000.
  3. It decreases by less than $1000.
  4. It stays the same.

 

32.  Refer to Scenario 2.  Suppose that in addition to the tax, a business license is required to stay in business.  The license costs $1000. What is the profit maximizing level of output?

  1. 0
  2. b.         90
  3. 95
  4. 100
  5. none of the above

 

 

The demand curve and marginal revenue curve for red herrings are given as follows:

Q = 250 – 5P

MR = 50 – 0.4Q

 

33.  Refer to Scenario 3.  What level of output maximizes revenue?

  1. 0
  2. 45
  3. 85
  4. d.         125
  5. 245

 

34.  Refer to Scenario 3.  The marginal cost of red herrings is given as:  MC = 0.6Q.  What is the profit-maximizing level of output?

  1. 0
  2. 25
  3. c.         50
  4. 60
  5. 125

 

35.  Refer to Scenario 3.  At the profit-maximizing level of output, demand is

  1. completely inelastic.
  2. inelastic, but not completely inelastic.
  3. unit elastic.
  4. d.         elastic, but not infinitely elastic.
  5. infinitely elastic.

 

36.  Refer to Scenario 3.  Compared to a competitive red herring industry, the monopolistic red herring industry

  1. produces more output at a higher price.
  2. b.         produces less output at a higher price.
  3. produces more output at a lower price.
  4. produces less output at a lower price.
  5. not enough information to relate the monopolistic red herring industry to a competitive industry.

 

37.  Refer to Scenario 3.  Suppose that a tax of $5 per unit of output is imposed on red herring producers.  The price of red herring will

  1. not change.
  2. b.         increase by less than $5.
  3. increase by $5.
  4. increase by more than $5.
  5. decrease.

 

 

The demand for tickets to the Meat Loaf concert (Q) is given as follows:

Q = 120,000 – 2,000P

 

The marginal revenue is given as:

MR = 60 – .001Q

 

The stadium at which the concert is planned holds 60,000 people.  The marginal cost of each additional concert goer is essentially zero up to 60,000 fans, but becomes infinite beyond that point.

 

38.  Refer to Scenario 4.  Given the information above, what are the profit maximizing number of tickets sold and the price of tickets?

  1. 0, $60
  2. 20,000, $50
  3. 40,000, $40
  4. d.         60,000, $30
  5. 80,000, $20

 

39. Refer to Scenario 4.  Suppose that the municipal stadium authority imposes a tax of $10 per ticket on the concert promoters.  Given the information above, the profit maximizing ticket price would

  1. increase by $10.
  2. b.         increase by $5.
  3. not change.
  4. decrease by $5.
  5. decrease by $10.

 

40.  Refer to Scenario 4.  A multiplant monopolist can produce her output in either of two plants. Having sold all of her output she discovers that the marginal cost in plant 1 is $30 while the marginal cost in plant 2 is $20. To maximize profits the firm will

  1. produce more output in plant 1 and less in the plant 2.
  2. do nothing until it acquires more information on revenues.
  3. c.         produce less output in plant 1 and more in plant 2.
  4. produce less in both plants until marginal revenue is zero.
  5. shut down plant 1 and only produce at plant 2 in the future.

 


A firm produces garden hoses in California and in Ohio.  The marginal cost of producing garden hoses in the two states and the marginal revenue from producing garden hoses are given in the following table:

California

Ohio

Qc

MCc

Qo

MCo

Qc+o

MR
1 2 1 3 1 24
2 3 2 4 2 20
3 5 3 6 3 16
4 9 4 8 4 12
5 16 5 12 5 8
6 24 6 17 6 4

                 41.  Refer to Scenario 5.  From the perspective of the firm, what is the marginal cost of the 5th garden hose?

  1. 4
  2. b.         5
  3. 16
  4. 12
  5. 8

 

42.  Refer to Scenario 5.  How many garden hoses should be produced in California in order to maximize profits?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. c.         3
  4. 4
  5. 5

 

 

 

John is the manufacturer of red rubber balls (Q).  He has a red rubber ball manufacturing plant in California, Florida and Montana.  The total cost of producing red rubber balls at each of the three plants is given by the following table:

 

California

Florida

Montana
Qc TCc Qf TCf Qm TCm
1 5 1 8 1 4
2 10 2 16 2 8
3 15 3 24 3 12
4 20 4 32 4 16
5 25 5 40 5 20
6 30 6 48 6 24
7 35 7 56 7 28
8 40 8 64 8 32
9 45 9 72 9 36
10 50 10 80 10 40
11 infinity 11 infinity 11 infinity

 

43.  Refer to Scenario 6.  If red rubber balls can be produced at any of the three plants, what is the marginal cost of 5th red rubber ball?

  1. a.         4
  2. 5
  3. 8
  4. 20
  5. none of the above

 

44.  Refer to Scenario 6.  If red rubber balls can be produced at any of the three plants, and John decides to produce 1 red rubber ball, at which plant will he produce it?

  1. California
  2. Florida
  3. c.         Montana
  4. he is indifferent between California and Florida
  5. he is indifferent between Florida and Montana

 

45.  The demand curve and marginal revenue curve for red rubber balls are given as follows:

Q = 16 – P     MR = 16 – 2Q

What level of output maximizes profit?

  1. 0
  2. 4
  3. 5.5
  4. d.         6
  5. (b), (c) and (d) all maximize profit.

 

46.  What is the profit maximizing price?

  1. a.         10
  2. 20
  3. 3
  4. 40
  5. none of the above

 

47.  At the profit-maximizing level of output, demand is

  1. completely inelastic.
  2. inelastic, but not completely inelastic.
  3. unit elastic.
  4. d.         elastic, but not infinitely elastic.
  5. infinitely elastic.

 

48.  Suppose that a tax of $2 per unit of output is imposed on red rubber ball producers.  What level of output maximizes profit?

  1. -1
  2. 3
  3. 4.5
  4. d.         5
  5. (b), (c) and (d) are correct

 

49.  After the imposition of a tax of $2 per unit of output, what is the profit maximizing price?

  1. a.         11
  2. 21
  3. 31
  4. 41
  5. none of the above

 


 

 

The marginal revenue of green ink pads is given as follows:

MR = 2500 – 5Q

The marginal cost of green ink pads is 5Q.

 

50.  Refer to Scenario 7.  How many ink pads will be produced to maximize revenue?

  1. 0
  2. 250
  3. 300
  4. 500
  5. none of the above

 

51.  Refer to Scenario 7.  How many ink pads will be produced to maximize profit?

  1. 50
  2. b.         250
  3. 500
  4. 800
  5. none of the above

 

52.  Refer to Scenario 7.  Suppose that the firm chooses to produce 200 ink pads.  At this level of output the demand for ink pads is

  1. inelastic.
  2. unit elastic.
  3. c.         elastic.
  4. d.         unit elastic.

 

53.  The marginal cost of a monopolist is constant and is $10.  The marginal revenue curve is given as follows:

MR = 100 – 2Q

The profit maximizing price is

  1. $70
  2. $65
  3. $60
  4. d.         $55
  5. $50

 

54.  A multiplant firm has equated marginal costs at each plant.  By doing this

  1. profits are maximized.
  2. b.         costs are minimized given the level of output.
  3. revenues are maximized given the level of output.
  4. none of the above.

 

55.  The _____ elastic a firm’s demand curve, the greater its _____.

  1. a.         less; monopoly power
  2. less; output
  3. more; monopoly power
  4. more; costs

 

56.  Monopoly power results from the ability to

  1. set price equal to marginal cost.
  2. equate marginal cost to marginal revenue.
  3. set price above average variable cost.
  4. d.         set price above marginal cost.

 

57.  What is the value of the Lerner index under perfect competition?

  1. 1
  2. b.         0
  3. infinity
  4. two times the price

 

58.  The more elastic the demand facing a firm,

  1. the higher the value of the Lerner index.
  2. b.         the lower the value of the Lerner index.
  3. the less monopoly power it has.
  4. the higher its profit.

 

59.  The Lerner index measures

  1. a firm’s potential monopoly power.
  2. b.         the amount of monopoly power a firm chooses to exercises when maximizing profits.
  3. a firm’s potential profitability.
  4. an industry’s potential market power.

 

60.  Assume that a firm’s marginal cost is $10 and the elasticity of demand is -2.  We can conclude that the firm’s profit maximizing price is approximately

  1. a.         $20.
  2. $5.
  3. $10.
  4. The answer cannot be determined without additional information.

 

61.  Use the following two statements to answer this question:

I.    A firm can exert monopoly power if and only if it is the sole producer of a good.

II.   The degree of monopoly power a firm possesses can be measured using the Lerner Index: L=(P-AC)/AC.

  1. Both I and II are true.
  2. I is true, and II is false.
  3. I is false, and II is true.
  4. d.         Both I and II are false.

 

62.  Suppose that the competitive market for rice in Japan was suddenly monopolized.  The effect of such a change would be:

  1. to decrease the price of rice to the Japanese people.
  2. b.         to decrease the consumer surplus of Japanese rice consumers.
  3. to decrease the producer surplus of Japanese rice producers.
  4. a welfare gain for the Japanese people.
  5. increase the consumption of rice by the Japanese people.

 

 

 

63.  Which of the following is NOT associated with a high degree of monopoly power?

  1. A relatively inelastic demand curve for the firm.
  2. A small number of firms in the market.
  3. c.         Significant price competition among firms in the market.
  4. Significant barriers to entry.

 

64.  Which factors determine the firm’s elasticity of demand?

  1. Elasticity of market demand and number of firms.
  2. Number of firms and the nature of interaction among firms.
  3. c.         Elasticity of market demand, number of firms, and the nature of interaction among firms.
  4. None of the above.

 

65.  When a drug company develops a new drug it is granted a _____ making it illegal for other firms to enter the market until the _____ expires.

  1. franchise; franchise
  2. copyright; copyright
  3. government license; government license
  4. d.         patent; patent

 

66.  The firms in a market have decided not to compete with one another and have agreed to limit output and raise price.

  1. This practice is known as concentrating and is legal in the United States and Canada.
  2. b.         This practice is known as collusion and is illegal in the United States.
  3. In this way firms take advantage of economies of scale.
  4. This is an effective barrier to entry, but is illegal in the United States.

 

67.  Under which of the following scenarios is it most likely that monopoly power will be exhibited by firms?

  1. a.         When there are few firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively inelastic.
  2. When there are many firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively inelastic.
  3. When there are few firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively elastic.
  4. When there are many firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively elastic.

 

Figure 10.1

The revenue and cost curves in the diagram above are those of a natural monopoly.

 

68.  Refer to Figure 10.1. If the monopolist is not regulated, the price will be set at _____.

  1. P1
  2. b.         P2
  3. P3
  4. P4
  5. none of the above

 

69.  Refer to Figure 10.1. Suppose that the government decides to limit monopoly power with price regulation.  If the government sets the price at the competitive level, it will set the price at _____.

  1. P1
  2. P2
  3. P3
  4. d.         P4
  5. none of the above

 

70.  Refer to Figure 10.1. The minimum feasible price is _____.

  1. P1
  2. P2
  3. c.         P3
  4. P4
  5. none of the above

 

71.  With respect to monopolies, deadweight loss refers to the

  1. socially unproductive amounts of money spent to obtain or acquire a monopoly.
  2. b.         net loss in consumer and producer surplus due to a monopolist’s pricing strategy/policy.
  3. lost consumer surplus from monopolistic pricing.
  4. none of the above.

 

72.  The regulatory lag:

  1. always benefits the regulated firm.
  2. b.         is likely to occur with rate-of-return regulation.
  3. promotes economic efficiency.
  4. all of the above.

 

73.  The monopolist that maximizes profit

  1. a.         imposes a cost on society because the selling price is above marginal cost.
  2. imposes a cost on society because the selling price is equal to marginal cost.
  3. does not impose a cost on society because the selling price is above marginal cost.
  4. does not impose a cost on society because price is equal to marginal cost.

 

74.  Deadweight loss from monopoly power is expressed on a graph as the area between the

  1. competitive price and the average revenue curve bounded by the quantities produced by the competitive and monopoly markets.
  2. competitive price line and the marginal cost curve bounded by the quantities produced by competitive and monopoly markets.
  3. competitive price line and the monopoly price line bounded by zero output and the output chosen by the monopolist.
  4. d.         average revenue curve and the marginal cost curve bounded by the quantities produced by competitive and monopoly markets.

 

75.  Which of the following is true when the government imposes a price ceiling on a monopolist?

  1. Marginal revenue becomes horizontal.
  2. Marginal revenue is linear.
  3. c.         Marginal revenue is kinked–horizontal and then downward sloping.
  4. Marginal revenue is kinked–downward sloping and then horizontal.

 

76.  If the regulatory agency sets a price where AR=AC for a natural monopoly, output will be

  1. equal to the competitive level.
  2. equal to the monopoly profit maximizing level.
  3. c.         greater than the monopoly profit maximizing level and less than the competitive level.
  4. greater than the competitive level.

 

77.  If a monopolist’s profits were taxed away and redistributed to its consumers,

  1. a.         inefficiency would remain because output would be lower than under competitive conditions.
  2. inefficiency would remain, but not because output would be lower than under competitive conditions.
  3. efficiency would be obtained because output would be increased to the competitive level.
  4. efficiency would be obtained because output would be increased and profits removed.

 

78.  Which of the following statements about natural monopolies is true?

  1. Natural monopolies are in the markets for natural resources (like crude oil and coal).
  2. b.         For natural monopolies, marginal cost is always below average cost.
  3. For natural monopolies, average cost is always increasing.
  4. Natural monopolies cannot be regulated.

 

 

Figure 10.2

 

                 79.  Refer to Figure 10.2. At output Qm, and assuming that the monopoly has set her price to maximize profit, the consumer surplus is:

  1. a.         CDE.
  2. BDEF.
  3. ADEG.
  4. 0DEQm.
  5. none of the above.

 

80.  Refer to Figure 10.2. In moving from the competitive level of output and price to the monopoly level of output and price, the monopolist is able to add to producer surplus:

  1. the area BCEF.
  2. b.         the area BCEF less the area GFH.
  3. the area BCEH.
  4. the area BCEH less the area GFH.
  5. none of the above.

 

81.  Refer to Figure 10.2. In moving from the competitive level of output and price to the monopoly level of output and price, the deadweight loss is the area:

  1. QmEHQc.
  2. b.         GEH.
  3. GFH.
  4. FEH.
  5. none of the above.

 

Use the following information to answer the next question:

The marginal cost of a monopolist is constant and is $10.  The demand curve and marginal revenue curves are given as follows:

demand:            Q = 100 – P

marginal revenue:     MR = 100 – 2Q

82.  The deadweight loss from monopoly power is

  1. $1000.00
  2. b.         $1012.50
  3. $1025.00
  4. $1037.50
  5. none of the above

 

Scenario 8:

Adriana is a monopolist producing green calculators.  The average and marginal cost curves and average and marginal revenue curves for her product are given as follows:

AC = Q+(10,000/Q)    MC = 2Q    AR = 30-(Q/2)     MR = 30-Q

 

83.  Refer to Scenario 8.  Suppose that the regulatory agency sets your price where average revenue equals average cost.  How much profit will Adriana make?

  1. She will lose money and will go out of business.
  2. b.         She will break even.
  3. She will make a profit.
  4. none of the above.

 

84.  Refer to Scenario 8.  The deadweight loss from monopoly is

  1. 0
  2. b.         5
  3. 10
  4. 25
  5. none of the above

 

Scenario 9:

Maui Macadamia Inc. has a monopoly in the macadamia nut industry.  The demand curve, marginal revenue and marginal cost curve for macadamia nuts are given as follows:

P = 360 – 4Q     MR = 360 – 8Q     MC = 4Q

 

85.  Refer to Scenario 9.  What level of output maximizes the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus?

  1. 0
  2. 30
  3. c.         45
  4. 60
  5. none of the above

 

86.  Refer to Scenario 9.  What is the profit maximizing level of output?

  1. 0
  2. b.         30
  3. 45
  4. 60
  5. none of the above

 

87.  Refer to Scenario 9.  At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the level of consumer surplus?

  1. 0
  2. b.         1,800
  3. 2,700
  4. 3,600
  5. 4,800

 

88.  Refer to Scenario 9.  At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the level of producer surplus?

  1. 0
  2. 1,800
  3. c.         5,400
  4. 7,200
  5. 9,600

 

89.  Refer to Scenario 9.  At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the deadweight loss?

  1. 0
  2. 450
  3. c.         900
  4. 1,800
  5. none of the above

90.  The situation in which buyers are able to affect the price of a good is referred to as ______________ power.

  1. monopoly
  2. purchasing
  3. c.         monopsony
  4. countervailing

 

91.  For a competitive buyer, the marginal expenditure per unit of an input

  1. exceeds the average expenditure per unit.
  2. is less than the average expenditure per unit.
  3. c.         equals the average expenditure per unit.
  4. any of the above could be true.

 

92.  Which of the following is true for a competitive buyer?

  1. a.         AE=ME.
  2. AE>ME.
  3. AE<ME.
  4. AE greater than or equal to ME.

 

93.  For a monopsony buyer, the marginal expenditure per unit of an input

  1. a.         exceeds the average expenditure per unit.
  2. is less than the average expenditure per unit.
  3. equals the average expenditure per unit.
  4. any of the above could be true.

 

94.  A monopsonist will buy _____ units of input than a competitor, and will pay _____  per unit.

  1. a.         fewer; less
  2. more; less
  3. fewer; more
  4. more; more

 

95.  Unlike a competitive buyer,

  1. a monopsonist faces an upward-sloping industry supply curve.
  2. a monopsonist pays a different price for each unit purchased.
  3. a monopsonist sets marginal value equal to marginal expenditure.
  4. d.         the price that a monopsonist pays depends on the number of units purchased.

 

Figure 10.3

 

The marginal value curve and expenditure curves in the aabove are those of a monopsony.

 

96.  Refer to Figure 10.3.  What quantity will the monopsonist purchase to maximize profit?

  1. Q1
  2. Q2
  3. c.         Q3
  4. Q4
  5. none of the above

 

97.  Refer to Figure 10.3.  What price will the monopsonist pay when maximizing profit?

  1. P1
  2. P2
  3. P3
  4. P4
  5. e.         P5

 

98.  Refer to Figure 10.3.  What quantity will be purchased in a competitive market?

  1. Q1
  2. Q2
  3. Q3
  4. d.         Q4
  5. none of the above

 

99.  Refer to Figure 10.3.  What is the competitive price?

  1. P1
  2. P2
  3. P3
  4. d.         P4
  5. P5

 

100.  In an oligopsony market:

  1. there are many buyers and sellers.
  2. there are many buyers and a single seller.
  3. there is a single buyer and many sellers.
  4. d.         there are a few buyers and many sellers.
  5. there are a few buyers and a few sellers.

 

Section 10.6

101.  In a bilateral monopoly, equilibrium price will

  1. favor the seller.
  2. favor the buyer.
  3. approximate the competitive equilibrium price.
  4. d.         not be determined by a simple rule.

 

102.  In a market with a bilateral monopoly:

  1. a.         there is a single buyer and a single seller.
  2. there are many buyers and a single seller.
  3. there is a single buyer and few sellers.
  4. there are a few buyers and many sellers.
  5. there are a few buyers and a few sellers.

 

103.  The degree of monopsony power that a firm enjoys is determined by

  1. elasticity of market demand, elasticity of market supply, and number of buyers in the market.
  2. b.         elasticity of market supply, number of buyers in the market, and how buyers interact.
  3. number of buyers in the market, how buyers interact, and number of sellers of the resource.
  4. how buyers interact, number of sellers of the resource, and elasticity of market demand.

 

104.  The percentage “markdown” due to monopsony power is equal to

  1. (P – MC)/P
  2. 1/ED
  3. c.         (MV – P)P
  4. P[1 + (1/ED)]

 

105.  The following diagram shows marginal value and expenditure curves for a monopsony.  In moving from the competitive price and quantity to the monopsony price and quantity, the deadweight loss from monopsony power is the area:

  1. ACDF
  2. CDE
  3. EDG
  4. d.         FDG
  5. BCDG

 

 

106.  Which of the following is true of the antitrust laws in the United States?  They are

  1. designed to make the business environment more equitable.
  2. b.         designed to promote a competitive economy.
  3. deliberately written in a way to make clear to all what is and what is not allowed.
  4. deliberately written in a language to promote cooperation among businesses.

 

107.  Predatory pricing is defined to be

  1. collusive pricing.
  2. b.         behavior designed to drive out current competition.
  3. cooperative behavior between two firms with monopoly power.
  4. collusion.

 

108.  Which of the following is not an important antitrust law?

  1. the Sherman Act of 1890
  2. the Clayton Act of 1914
  3. c.         the Consumer Protection Act of 1932
  4. the Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914
  5. None of the above are antitrust laws.
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CS304 Object Oriented Programming Quiz No. 2 Dated January 11, 2012

Published January 13, 2012 | By Vuhelp

A template provides a convenient way to make a family of
Select correct option:
variables and data members
functions and classes
classes and exceptions
programs and algorithms

 

A class template may inherit from another class template.
Select correct option:
True 
False

 

Target of a _____ function call is determined at run time.
Select correct option:
instance
virtual 
operator
none of given

 

A class hierarchy
Select correct option:
shows the same relationships as an organization chart.
describes “has a” relationships.
describes “is a kind of” relationships.
shows the same relationships as a family tree.

 

Sender of the message does not need to know the exact class of receiver in______.
Select correct option:
Abstraction
Polymorphism 
Inheritance
none of the given

 

A function call is resolved at run-time in_________
Select correct option:
non-virtual member function
virtual member function
Both non-virtual member and virtual member function.
None of given

 

Adding a derived class to a base class requires fundamental changes to the base class.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

 

User can make virtual table explicitly.
Select correct option:
True 
False

 

Binding means that target function for a call is selected at compile time.
Select correct option:
Static
Dynamic
Automatic
None of given

 

Target of a _____ function call is determined at run time.
Select correct option:
instance
virtual 
operator
none of given

 

 

 

Which line will produce error. Class phone: private Transmit, private Receiver { } 1. int main() 2. { 3. phone obj; 4. Tranmit* obj1 = &obj; 5. Received obj2 = &obj; 6. }
Select correct option:
3rd line will produce error
4th line will produce error
3rd and 4th line will produce error.
5th line will produce error

 

Function overriding is done in context of,
Select correct option:
Single class
Single derived class
Single base class
Derived and base classes

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ public: void func1(); }; class class2 : protected class1 { }; Function func1 of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected 
private
none of the given options

 

the following statements: 1) int iArray[5]; 2) int *pArr = iArray;
Select correct option:
These statements will compile successfully
Error in first statement
Error in second statement
None of given options

 

 

 

 

 

 

Methodologies to the development of reusable software relate to________.
Select correct option:
Structure programming
procedural programming
generic programming
None of the given

 

function template must have a parameter.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

The default inheritance mode is,
Select correct option:
Public inheritance
Protected inheritance
Private inheritance
None of these options

 

Two functions with same names, parameters and return type can exist in,
Select correct option:
Function overloading
Function overriding
Operator overloading
None of these options

 

Consider the code below, class c1{ }; class c2 : public c1 { }; class c3 : public c2 { }; Then c2 is,
Select correct option:

Direct base class of c3 
Direct child class of c3
Direct base class of c1
None of these

 

 

 

 

 

Virtual functions allow you to
Select correct option:
create an array of type pointer-to-base class that can hold pointers to derived classes.
create functions that can never be accessed.
group objects of different classes so they can all be accessed by the same function code.
use the same function call to execute member functions of objects from different classes.

 

User can make virtual table explicitly.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

In order to define a class template the first line of definition must be:
Select correct option:
template <typename T>
typename <template T>
Template Class <ClassName>
Class <Template T>

 

Consider the following statements: 1) int iArray[5]; 2) int *pArr = iArray;
Select correct option:
These statements will compile successfully
Error in first statement
Error in second statement
None of given options

 

 

 

 

 

 

In c++ dynamic binding and polymorphism will be achieved when member function will be __.
Select correct option:
private
public
virtual 
inline

 

In type in depended function template should be use where code and behavior must be identical.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ protected: int i; }; class class2 : private class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:

public
protected 
private
none of the given options

 

In specialization we can,
Select correct option:
Replace child class with its base class
Replace base class with its child class (Not Sure) 
Replace both child and base classes interchangeably
None of the given options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ public: void func1(); }; class class2 : public class1 { }; Function func1 of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

It is illegal to make objects of one class members of another class.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

An abstract class is useful when
Select correct option:
no classes should be derived from it.
there are multiple paths from one derived class to another.
no objects should be instantiated from its.
you want to defer the declaration of the class.

 

In resolution order compiler search firstly _______.
Select correct option:
Generic Template
Partial Specialization
Complete Specialization
Ordinary function

 

 

 

template<> class Vector{ void** p; //…. void*& operator[] ((int i); };
Select correct option:
This specialization can then be used as the common implimentation for all Vectors of pointers.
This spcialization can then be used as the all type implimentation for one type classes.
This specialization can then be used double type pointers.
This specialization should be used for Vectors of all type int types.

 

 

 

 

 

 

In private inheritance derived class pointer can be assigned to base class pointer in,
Select correct option:
Main function
In derived class member and friend functions
In base class member and friend functions
None of the given options

 

Which statement will be true for concrete class?
it implements an virtual concept.
it can be instantiated
it cannot be instantiated
none of given

 

Target of a _____ function call is determined at run time.
Select correct option:
instance
virtual
operator
none of given

 

The Specialization pattern after the name says that this specialization is to be used for every___.
Select correct option:
data types
meta types
virtual types
pointers type

 

c++ dynamic binding and polymorphism will be achieved when member function will be __.
Select correct option:
private
public
virtual
inline

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ protected: void func1(); }; class class2 : public class1 { }; Function func1 of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ protected: int i; }; class class2 : protected class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ private: void func1(); }; class class2 : private class1 { }; Function func1 of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Target of a _____ function call is determined at run time.
Select correct option:
instance
virtual
operator
none of given

 

Consider the following statements: 1) int iArray[5]; 2) int *pArr = iArray;
Select correct option:
These statements will compile successfully
Error in first statement
Error in second statement
None of given options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ private: int i; }; class class2 : private class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

If there is a pointer, p, to objects of a base class, and it contains the address of an object of a derived class, and both classes contain a virtual member function, ding(), then the statement p->ding(); will cause the version of ding() in the ___ class to be executed.
Select correct option:
base
derived
virtual
implemented

 

A class template may inherit from another class template.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

Derived class can inherit from public base class as well as private and protected base classes
Select correct option:
True 
False

 

Two functions with same names, parameters and return type can exist in,
Select correct option:
Function overloading
Function overriding
Operator overloading
None of these options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ private: int i; }; class class2 : public class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Target of a _____ function call is determined at run time.
Select correct option:
instance
virtual
operator
none of given

 

 

 

 

 

A class template may inherit from another class template.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

A function call is resolved at run-time in_________
Select correct option:
non-virtual member function
virtual member function
Both non-virtual member and virtual member function.
None of given

hello

 

A class hierarchy
Select correct option:
shows the same relationships as an organization chart.
describes “has a” relationships.
describes “is a kind of” relationships.
shows the same relationships as a family tree.

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ public: int i; }; class class2 : public class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Consider the code below, class c1{ }; class c2 : public c1 { }; class c3 : public c2 { }; Then c1 is,
Select correct option:
Direct base class of c3
Direct child class of c3
Direct base class of c2
Direct child class of c2

 

A class can inherit from more then one class is called.
Select correct option:
Simple inheritance
Multiple inheritances
Single inheritance
Double inheritance

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

template<> class Vector{ void** p; //…. void*& operator[] ((int i); };
Select correct option:

This specialization can then be used as the common implimentation for all Vectors of pointers.
This spcialization can then be used as the all type implimentation for one type classes.
This specialization can then be used double type pointers.
This specialization should be used for Vectors of all type int types.

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ public: int i; }; class class2 : protected class1 { }; Then int member i of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Consider the code below, class class1{ private: void func1(); }; class class2 : public class1 { }; Function func1 of class1 is ____ in class2,
Select correct option:
public
protected
private
none of the given options

 

Templates automatically create different versions of a function, depending on user input.
Select correct option:
True
False

 

_________ Binding means that target function for a call is selected at run time
Select correct option:
Automatic
Dynamic
Static
Dramatic

 

 

When we create objects, then space is allocated to:

Member function

Access specifier

Data member

None of given

 

There is only one form of copy constructor.

True

False

 

 

Which of the following features of OOP is used to deal with only relevant details?

Abstraction

Information hiding

Object

 

 

____________ Binding means that targets function for a call is selected at compile time.

Static

Dynamic

Automatic

None of given

 

A Class hierarchy

Shows the same relationships as an organization chart

Describes “has a” relationships.

Describes “is a kind of” relationships.

Shows the same relationships as a family tree

 

 

 

 

In C++, we declare a function virtual by preceding the function header with keyword “Inline”

True

False

 

It is illegal to make objects of one class members of another class.

True

False

 

In Resolution order compiler search firstly____________.

Generic Template

Partial Specification

Complete Specification

Ordinary function

 

Derived class can inherit from public base class as well as private and protected base classes

True

False

 

Which line will produce error. Class phone: Private Transmit, private Receiver { } 1.int main () 2. { 3.phone obj; 4.Tranmit*obj1 = &obj; 5.Received obj2 = &obj; 6.}

 

3rd line will produce error

4th line will produce error

3rd and 4th line will produce error.

5th line will produce error.

 

Methodologies to the development of reusable software relate to ____________.

Structure programming

Procedural programming

Generic programming

None of the given

 

A template argument is preceded by the keyword__________.

Vector

Class

Template

Type*

 

Friends are used exactly the same for template and non-template classes.

True

False

 

 

 

 

A function template must have a parameter

True

False

 

Child class can call constructor of its,

Direct base class

Indirect base class

Both direct and indirect base classes

None of these.

 

Which statement will be true for concrete class?

It implements an virtual concept.

It can be instantiated

It cannot be instantiated

None of given

 

A class D can be derived from a class C, which is derived froma class B, which is derived from a class A

True

False

 

Adding a derived class to a base class requires fundamental changes to the base class.

True

False

 

A Class or class template can have member ___________ that are themselves templates.

 

Variable

Function

Objects

None of given

 

Which will be the Primary task or tasks of generic programming?

Categorize the abstractions in a domain into concepts

Implement generic algorithms based on the concepts

Build concrete models of the concepts

All of given

 

The default inheritance mode is,

Public inheritance

Protected Inheritance

Private Inheritance

None of these options

 

If there is a pointer, p, to objects of a base class, and it contains the address of an object of a derived class, and both classes contain a virtual member function, ding(), then the statement p->ding(); will cause the version of ding() in the __________class to be executed.

Base

Derived

Virtual

Implemented

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ACC501 VU Current Solved Online Quiz No. 4 Fall 2011-2012

Published January 10, 2012 | By Vuhelp

Which of the follwing ratios are intended to address the firm’s financial leverage?

Select correct option:

o

Liquidity Ratios

Long-term Solvency Ratios

Asset Management Ratios

Profitability Ratios

 

The preferred stock of a company currently sells for Rs. 25 per share. The annual dividend of Rs. 2.50 is fixed. Assuming a constant dividend forever, what is the rate of return on this stock?

Select correct option:

5.00 percent

7.00 percent

8.45 percent

10.0 percent

 

The relationship between real and nominal returns is described by the:

Select correct option:

M&M Proposition

Capital Asset Pricing Model

Fisher’s Effect

BCG Matrix

 

An investment should be accepted if the Net Present Value (NPV) is __________ and rejected if it is ________.

Select correct option:

Positive; positive

Positive; negative

Negative; negative

Negative; positive

 

Which of the following form of business organization is least regulated?

Select correct option:

Sole-proprietorship

General Partnership

Limited Partnership

Corporation

 

In which of the following procedure of voting for a company’s directors, each shareholder is entitled to one vote per share?

Select correct option:

Straight Voting

Proportional Voting

Cumulative Voting

None of the given options

 

Which of the following cash flow activities are reported in the Cash Flow Statement and Income Statement?

Select correct option:

Operating Activities

Investing Activities

Financing Activities

All of the given options

 

Mr. Aslam owns 100 shares of a company and there are four directors to be elected. How much votes Mr. Aslam would have as per cumulative voting procedure?

Select correct option:

100 votes

200 votes

300 votes

400 votes

 

A given rate is quoted as 9 percent APR, but the EAR is 9.38 percent. What is the compounding period?

Select correct option:

Semiannually

Quarterly

Monthly

Daily

 

Which of the following terms refers to the use of debt financing?

Select correct option:

Operating Leverage

Financial Leverage

Manufacturing Leverage

None of the given options

 

Between the two identical bonds having different coupon, the price of the ________ bond will change less than that of ________ bond.

Select correct option:

Higher-coupon; lower-coupon

Lower-coupon; higher-coupon

Long-term; short-term

None of the given options

 

Which of the following financial statement shows both dollars and percentages in the report?

Select correct option:

Balance Sheet

Common-Size Statement

Income Statement

Relative Statement of Equity

 

A ___________ is an agent who arranges security transactions among investors.

Select correct option:

Broker

Dealer

Member

Specialist

 

If a firm uses cash to purchase inventory, its quick ratio will:

Select correct option:

Increase

Decrease

Remain unaffected

Become zero

 

In which type of the market, securities are originally sold to the investors?

Select correct option:

Primary Market

Secondary Market

Tertiary Market

None of the given options

 

Which of the following item(s) is(are) not included while calculating Operating Cash Flows?

Select correct option:

Depreciation

Interest

Expenses related to firm’s financing of its assets

All of the given options

 

Balance sheet for a company reports current assets of Rs. 700,000 and current liabilities of Rs. 460,000. What would be the Current Ratio for the company if there is an inventory level of Rs. 120,000?

Select correct option:

1.01

1.26

1.39

1.52

 

How many Rs. 190 annual payments must be invested at 12% to accumulate Rs. 57,921?

Select correct option:

14

28

32

56 (doubt)

 

One would be indifferent between taking and not taking the investment when:

Select correct option:

NPV is greater than Zero

NPV is equal to Zero (doubt)

NPV is less than Zero

All of the given options

 

SNT Corporation has policy of paying a Rs. 6 per share dividend every year. If this policy is to continue indefinitely, what will be the value of a share of stock at a 15% required rate of return?

Select correct option:

Rs. 30

Rs. 40

Rs. 50

Rs. 60

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Cs403 database managment system solved current quiz 4 January 2012-01-04

Published January 4, 2012 | By Vuhelp

s403 database quiz on 4 January 2012-01-04
Please download the PDF to get full marks

A relation is said to be in BCNF when
it has overlapping composite keys
In vertical partitioning if we divide a table into two vertical partitions then efficiency of those applications will be reduced which used to.
Access data from second vertical partition
Attributes are (i) properties of relationship (ii) attributed to entities (iii) properties of members of an entity set

General reasoning for horizontal or vertical partitioning is.
Increasing the consistency
Given the following relation it is not 3 NF because Student (roll no, name, course no, course max. marks, year of study, address), where roll no is PK
it has more than 3 non-key attributes
BCNF is needed because
A second Normal Form (2 NF) relation should
be in 1 NF
Boye Codd Normal Form (BCNF) is needed when
there are two or more possible composite overlapping keys and one attribute
of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of another composite key
A relation is said to be in 3 NF if (i) it is in 2 NF (ii) non-key attributes are independent of one another (iii) key attribute is not dependent on part of a composite key (iv) has no multi-valued dependency
i and ii
The process of normalization
requires one to understand dependency between attributes
ramiz
Atomicity is a feature of ______.
If A -> B and A -> C, then A -> BC The Inference Rule applies is;

Augmentation
A relation is said to be in BCNF when
it has no overlapping composite keys which have related attributes
A 3 NF relation is converted to BCNF by
dependent attributes of overlapping composite keys are put in a separate relation
Normalization is a process of restructuring a relation to
minimize duplication of data in a database

An attribute y may be functionally dependent on (i) a composite attribute x,y (ii) a single attribute x (iii) no attribute
i and ii
Consider the following relation vendor_order (vendor no, order no, vendor name, qty supplied , price/unit) where ‘vendor no, order no’ is PK. The second normal form relations are
vendor (vendor no, vendor name, qty supplied, price/unit), vendor no is PK
vendor order (order no, vendor no), order no and vendor no is PK
Normalization of database is essential to (i) avoid accidental deletion of required data when some data is deleted (ii) eliminate inconsistencies when a data item is modified in the database (iii) allows storage of data in a computer’s disk (iv) use a database management system
i and ii

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cs604 operating system solved current quiz no 3 on 4 Junary 2012

Published January 4, 2012 | By Vuhelp

Cs604 online quiz on 4 january 2012
In Overlay technique, we can overload any part of the program with the part of the program required needed recently.
True
Variable names are ———– addresses
Relocatable
————–refers to the situation when free memory space exists to load a process in the memory but the space is not contiguous.
External Fragmentation
External Fragmentation takes place in ______________
Multiprogramming with Variable Tasks (MVT)
The run-time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a piece of hardware in the CPU, called the ——————
Memory management unit (MMU)
Overlays are implemented by the _________________
kernal

—————keep in memory only those instructions and data that are needed at any given time.
Overlays
The ——- is a single program that produces an object file
Compiler
_____________ is caused due to un-used space in physical memory.
Paging
Physical memory is broken down into fixed-sized blocks, called———– and Logical memory is divided into blocks of the same size, called ———–
Frames, pages
What do we name to an address that is generated by the CPU?
Logical address
———–is the process of mapping a name to an address.
Routing
__________ is used in the detection and recovery mechanism to handle deadlocks.
Wait-for Graph
What do we name to an address that is loaded into the memory-address register of the memory?
Physical address
Banker’s algorithm is used for ________________
Deadlock avoidance

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cs610 computer network solved quiz of 2012

Published January 3, 2012 | By Vuhelp

Cs610 computer network quiz on 3rd of January 2012-01-03
There are three standard implementations to improve computational efficiency: Hashing, Direct Indexing and InDirect Indexing
False
A _____________ address-binding table is used for each physical network.
New
Similar
Separate
Old
______ layer Provides reliable delivery of datagram.
Network
Tarnsport
Datalink
None of the given
Due to revolutionalization of IP-V6 the speed has increased from _______

512 to 1 gb
________ encapsulates IP datagram as data area in hardware frame.
Network Interface Layer
Datalink Layer
Network Layer
None of the given
_______ field of header indicates whether a datagram is a fragment or a complete datagram.
FRAGMENT OFFSET
IP datagram can contains ________ octets.
As the Internet grew, the original Classful addressing scheme became a limitation. The IP address space was being exhausted because all networks had to choose one of four possible sizes.
False
As the Internet grew, the original Classful addressing scheme became a limitation. The IP address space was being exhausted because all networks had to choose one of ________ possible sizes.
Three
Header contains all information needed to deliver datagram to the destination computer. But which one of the following is not included:
Rectifier
______ contains all information needed to deliver datagram to the destination.
Header
One of the parameters, which motivated IP for change is address space. The _____________ address space allows for over a million networks. But most networks are class C and too small for many organizations.
32-bit
Class A mask is 255.0.0.0 which is used for ______
Subnetting
Postfix defines how much of address used to identify network.
False
________ field is used to identify a specific path through the network
FLOW LABEL
_______ is a technique used to Limit datagram size to small MTU of any network
Fragmentation
Hashing is the transformation of a string of characters into a usually shorter fixed-length value or a key that represents the original string.
True
In ______________, the protocol address assigned to a computer is chosen carefully so that computer’s hardware address can be computed from the protocol address using basic Boolean and arithmetic operations.
Closed-form Computation
Routers use _______ to forward datagrams along prearranged path.
Flow label
Mapping between a protocol address and a hardware address is called Address Resolution.
True
Preliminary version of IP was called _________.
IP – Next Generation (IPng)
_______ Source is responsible for fragmentation.
IPV6
End to End delivery Service of IP datagram is _____
Connectionless
Every hardware technology specification includes the definition of the maximum size of the frame data area, which is called the ____________Transmission Unit.
Maximum
IPV6 addresses are _____ bits.
128
MTU Stands for _______
Maximun transmission unit
_______ shows senders preference for low latency, high Reliability.
SERVICE TYPE
NEXT HEADER field in the base header defines type of header it appears at the end of fixed-size base header.
True
There are two standard implementations to improve computational efficiency: Hashing and Direct indexing
True
A datagram cannot be larger than ________ of a network over which it is sent.
IP header
The protocol address of the next hop must be _____________ to an equivalent hardware address before a packet can be sent.
Translated

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MGT201 Financial Management Solved Quiz

Published July 15, 2011 | By Vuhelp

1. “Shareholder wealth” in a firm is represented by:

  • the number of people employed in the firm.
  •  the book value of the firm’s assets less the book value of its liabilities.
  •  the amount of salary paid to its employees.
  • the market price per share of the firm’s common stock.

 

2. The long-run objective of financial management is to:

  • maximize earnings per share.
  • maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.
  • maximize return on investment.
  • maximize market share.

 

3. What are the earnings per share (EPS) for a company that earned $100,000 last year in after-tax profits, has 200,000 common shares outstanding and $1.2 million in retained earning at the year end?

  • $100,000
  • $6.00
  • $0.50 (100,000/200,000)
  • $6.50

 

4. A(n) would be an example of a principal, while a(n) would be an example of an agent.

  • shareholder; manager
  • manager; owner
  • accountant; bondholder
  • shareholder; bondholder

 

5. The market price of a share of common stock is determined by:

  • the board of directors of the firm.
  • the stock exchange on which the stock is listed.
  • the president of the company.
  • individuals buying and selling the stock.

 

6. The focal point of financial management in a firm is:

  • the number and types of products or services provided by the firm.
  • the minimization of the amount of taxes paid by the firm.
  • the creation of value for shareholders.
  • the dollars profits earned by the firm.

 

7. The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the          decisions.

  • financing and investment
  • investment, financing, and asset management
  • financing and dividend
  • capital budgeting, cash management, and credit management

 

8. The controller’s responsibilities are primarily in nature, while the treasurer’s responsibilities are primarily related to         .

  • operational; financial management
  • financial management; accounting
  • accounting; financial management
  • financial management; operations

 

9. In the US, the  has been given the power to adopt auditing, quality control, ethics, and disclosure standards for public companies and their auditors as well as investigate and discipline those involved.

  • American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA)
  • Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)
  • Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)
  • Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

 

10. A company’s is (are) potentially the most effective instrument of good corporate governance.

  • common stock shareholders
  • board of directors
  • top executive officers

 

11. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) was largely a response to:

  • a series of corporate scandals involving Enron, WorldCom, Global Crossing, Tyco and numerous others.
  • a dramatic rise in the US trade deficit.
  • charges of excessive compensation to top corporate executives.
  • rising complaints by investors and security analysts over the financial accounting for stock options.
  • The following item is NEW to the 13th edition.

 

12. ___________ refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • Sustainability
  • Convergence
  • Green Economics

 

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IT430 Solved online quiz

Published June 27, 2011 | By Vuhelp

Track the customers online and do personalization is only possible through which of the following file(s) analysis.
Select correct option:

log files
cookie
data mining
log files and cookies.

Which of the following is cheapest and quickest marketing technique to reach distant customers?
Select correct option:

E-Mail marketing
Telephone marketing
SMS marketing
Advertisement letters marketing

Visitor’s location, IP address, time of visit related information are added, in which of the following
Select correct option:

call handling files
cookies
log files
Data mining files.

Do you think that “www.vu.edu.pk” can be considered as university’s advertisement website?
Select correct option:

Yes
No

How many stages involve in customer loyalty model for creating good customer relationship?
Select correct option:

6
5
4
3

Call handling, sales tracking and Transaction support(technology / personnel) activities are included in which management system
Select correct option:

Customer Relationship Management system
Public relation management system
Inventory management system
Data Base Management system

www.amzon.com as you all familiar with it. Which of the following loyalty stages its customers are: ( Who don’t know about it): Detail about amzon.com Amazon was one of the first major companies to sell goods by Internet, and was an iconic “stock in which to invest” of the late 1990s dot-com bubble. Jeff Bezos founded Amazon.com, Inc. in 1994, and launched it online in 1995. Amazon.com started as an on-line bookstore, but soon diversified to product lines of VHS, DVD, music CDs, MP3 format, computer software, , etc. Amazon has established separate websites in Canada, the United Kingdom, Germany, France, China, and Japan. It also provides global shipping to certain countries for some of its products.
Select correct option:

Awareness
Exploration
Familiarity
Commitment

Let us, suppose that you have hosted early your e-commerce website to sell sweets online: Your customers are acquaint with the name of your company and “DesiGhee Burfi ”. They have never interacted with your company. Which of following loyalty stages they are?
Select correct option:

Awareness
Exploration
Familiarity
Commitment

If a company’s marketing stretegy is focusing on customers having age less than 30, which of the following marketing segmentation technique is being used by company?
Select correct option:

Demographic Segmentation
Geographic Segmentation
Psychographic segmentation
Behavioral segmentation

While designing a website, which of the following factors an internet marketer should pay attention to?
Select correct option:

Easy site navigation (i.e. Site map)
Frequently asked questions (FAQs) section
Privacy policy
All of above

 

 

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CS403 – Database Management Systems Quiz

Published June 15, 2011 | By Vuhelp

Question # 1 of 10 ( Start time: 04:56:46 PM )  Total Marks: 1

The ___________ suggests identifying goals and questions first before

selecting techniques for the study

Select correct option:

 

RVM model

DECIDE framework (answer)

Usability testing

Field study

 

 

Question # 2 of 10 ( Start time: 04:57:42 PM )  Total Marks: 1

____________ represent the user’s expectations of the tangible

outcomes of using a specific product.

Select correct option:

 

Non-user goals

End goals (answer)

Experience goals

Life goals

 

 

Question # 3 of 10 ( Start time: 04:58:28 PM )  Total Marks: 1

________ represents the Early-phase of ethnographic interviews.

Select correct option:

 

Clarify user roles and behaviors.

Confirm patterns of use.

Clarifying questions.

Focused on domain knowledge.

 

 

Question # 4 of 10 ( Start time: 05:00:02 PM )  Total Marks: 1

What is the fourth step in defining the requirements with respect to

persona-based design?

Select correct option:

 

Creating problem and vision statement.

Brainstorming.

Identifying persona expectations.

Constructing the context scenario. (answer)

 

 

Question # 5 of 10 ( Start time: 05:01:17 PM )  Total Marks: 1

Recalling password is ____________ work.

Select correct option:

 

Logical

Mnemonic (answer)

Physical

Structural

 

 

 

 

Question # 6 of 10 ( Start time: 05:02:14 PM )  Total Marks: 1

This is not a characteristic of usability test

Select correct option:

 

The primary goal is to improve usability

The participants do not represent real users

Observe and record what participants do and say

None of the given

 

 

 

Question # 7 of 10 ( Start time: 05:03:39 PM )  Total Marks: 1

Goal-oriented context scenarios are _____________ task-oriented than

key path scenario

Select correct option:

 

Less

Alike

More (answer)

None of the given

 

 

 

Question # 8 of 10 ( Start time: 05:05:16 PM )  Total Marks: 1

In DECIDE frame work _______________ comes just after choosing the

evaluation paradigm and techniques.

Select correct option:

 

Deciding about ethical issues (answer)

Exploring the questions

Identifying the practical issues

None of the given

 

 

Question # 9 of 10 ( Start time: 05:06:52 PM )  Total Marks: 1

What do you enjoy most about your job (or lifestyle) is an example of

_________.

Select correct option:

 

Avoidance

Motivation (answer)

Exceptions

Attitude-oriented questions

 

 

 

Question # 10 of 10 ( Start time: 05:07:53 PM )  Total Marks: 1

Information sites with daily-updated information will naturally

attract ____________ users more than a monthly-updated site.

Select correct option:

 

Repeat (answer)

Infrequent

Nonuser

None of the given

 

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SOC101 Online Quiz 3 Solved

Published June 10, 2011 | By Vuhelp

Question # 1 of 10 ( Start time: 08:47:17 PM )

The offenses like theft, burglary, assault, and rape are usually called as::

Organized crime

Gambling

Street crimes

Juvenile delinquency

 

 

Question # 2 of 10 ( Start time: 08:48:29 PM )

Cultural patterns those are widespread among a society’s population are known as

__________.

Ideal culture

Real culture

High culture

Popular culture

 

Question # 3 of 10 ( Start time: 08:49:44 PM )

_____________ explanations of deviance focus on abnormalities within the individual, focusing on personality disorders.

Psychologists

Socio-biologists

Sociologists

Anthropologists

 

Question # 4 of 10 ( Start time: 08:50:49 PM )

Which of the following term is known as giving up things in the present for the sake of greater gains in the future?

Culture of poverty

Deferred gratification

Social mobility

Horizontal mobility

 

Question # 5 of 10 ( Start time: 08:51:29 PM )

The replicability of the phenomenon is essential for repeating the observation, it is

______________ characteristic of scientific method.

Cumulative

Self correcting

Verifiable

Empirical

 

Question # 6 of 10 ( Start time: 08:52:53 PM )

Which type of mobility consists of movement up and down the stratification system by members of successive generations of a family?

Inter-generational

Intra-generational

Lateral

Horizontal

 

Question # 7 of 10 ( Start time: 08:54:12 PM )

Which of the following is an important element of non-verbal communication?

Eye contact

Body language

Hand gestures

All of the given options

 

Question # 8 of 10 (Start time: 08:55:37 PM)

Marriage appears to be in decline in West because:

The proportion of people living alone has fallen

Many people are cohabiting in long term relationships

The upward curve of remarriages compensates for

All of the above

 

Question # 9 of 10 (Start time: 08:57:02 PM)

How many organizations are distinguished on the basis of people participation?

Two

Three

Four

Five

 

Question # 10 of 10 ( Start time: 08:58:33 PM )

The organized interaction of people in a nation or within some other boundary is known as __________.

Society

Nation

Culture

Tribe

 

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